> Rahul Yadav has decided to allot all his personal shares[...] So I'm not very well versed in options but does this literally mean all of his shares or is the

> Rahul Yadav has decided to allot all his personal shares[...] So I'm not very well versed in options but does this literally mean all of his shares or is there a difference between personal shares and some sort of other shares? Did he really give away every share he owned / is entitled to? Edit: erm, thought questions were okay. Why the downvotes? I just wanted to know if there is some sort of legal distinction with "personal" shares or if it simply means all of his shares.