From one of the studies cited: ( http://www.auditory.org/mhonarc/2004/save/pdf00001.pdf http://www.auditory.org/mhonarc/2004/save/pdf00001.pdf ) "We conclude th

From one of the studies cited: ( http://www.auditory.org/mhonarc/2004/save/pdf00001.pdf http://www.auditory.org/mhonarc/2004/save/pdf00001.pdf ) "We conclude that the potential to acquire absolute pitch is universally present at birth, and that it can be realized by enabling the infant to associate pitches with verbal labels during the critical period for speech acquisition." The article claims "each and every one of us is born with perfect pitch", but this is not cited, and being born with absolute (aka. perfect) pitch is not the same as being born with the potential to learn absolute pitch. EDIT: Possibly evidence for babies being born with absolute pitch was hidden behind a misleading link (the "synesthesia" link). But full text is paywalled so I can't be sure: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/11206435 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/11206435