4 ms·

It's probably cultural... latin-americans, and Europeans with latin culture (France, Spain, Italy, Portugal, etc) usually tend to take life "less seriously" (we

by joeyspn 12y ago

It's probably cultural... latin-americans, and Europeans with latin culture (France, Spain, Italy, Portugal, etc) usually tend to take life "less seriously" (we all know the awful toll stress takes in our bodies/minds), and also eat healthier introducing other paradoxes like the "French Paradox"[0] [0] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_paradox http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_paradox

saiya-jin 12y ago
france a country with latin culture? not really..
- deleted 12y ago
  [deleted]
- iamcurious 12y ago
  The term was made up to remark that Latin America is closer to France than to other countries like England and USA. From Wikipedia ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_America#Etymology_and_definitions http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_America#Etymology_and_def... ): The idea that a part of the Americas has a linguistic affinity with the Romance cultures as a whole can be traced back to the 1830s, in the writing of the French Saint-Simonian Michel Chevalier, who postulated that this part of the Americas was inhabited by people of a "Latin race", and that it could, therefore, ally itself with "Latin Europe" in a struggle with "Teutonic Europe", "Anglo-Saxon America" and "Slavic Europe".[8] The idea was later taken up by Latin American intellectuals and political leaders of the mid- and late-nineteenth century, who no longer looked to Spain or Portugal as cultural models, but rather to France.[9] The term was first used in Paris in an 1856 conference by the Chilean politician Francisco Bilbao[10] and the same year by the Colombian writer José María Torres Caicedo in his poem "Two Americas".[11] The term Latin America was supported by the French Empire of Napoleon III during the French invasion of Mexico as a way to include France among countries with influence in the Americas and to exclude Anglophone countries and played a role in his campaign to imply cultural kinship of the region with France, transform France into a cultural and political leader of the area, and install Maximilian of Habsburg as emperor of the Second Mexican Empire.[12] This term was also used in 1861 by French scholars in La revue des races Latines, a magazine dedicated to the Pan-Latinism movement.[13]
- joeyspn 12y ago
  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Romance_languages http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Romance_languages
davidw 12y ago
There are some pretty major differences between eating habits in Mexico, and, say, Italy. The people in the former are statistically quite obese, whereas Italians tend to be in pretty good shape.
VLM 12y ago
The French Paradox is basically a politically correct way for standard american diet believers to talk about how paleo style diets mysteriously seem healthier. How could it possibly be that lower carb, less processed, higher natural fat diets lead to health when the big agribusinesses who purchased the official USDA guidelines to increase their profits insist on the opposite as the path to health despite the evidence of the obesity epidemic? With a strong side dish of puritan guilt, if it tastes good it must be bad for you, and french-style cooking usually tastes pretty good.

by joeyspn 12y ago

saiya-jin 12y ago

france a country with latin culture? not really..

deleted 12y ago
[deleted]
iamcurious 12y ago
The term was made up to remark that Latin America is closer to France than to other countries like England and USA. From Wikipedia ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_America#Etymology_and_definitions http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_America#Etymology_and_def... ): The idea that a part of the Americas has a linguistic affinity with the Romance cultures as a whole can be traced back to the 1830s, in the writing of the French Saint-Simonian Michel Chevalier, who postulated that this part of the Americas was inhabited by people of a "Latin race", and that it could, therefore, ally itself with "Latin Europe" in a struggle with "Teutonic Europe", "Anglo-Saxon America" and "Slavic Europe".[8] The idea was later taken up by Latin American intellectuals and political leaders of the mid- and late-nineteenth century, who no longer looked to Spain or Portugal as cultural models, but rather to France.[9] The term was first used in Paris in an 1856 conference by the Chilean politician Francisco Bilbao[10] and the same year by the Colombian writer José María Torres Caicedo in his poem "Two Americas".[11] The term Latin America was supported by the French Empire of Napoleon III during the French invasion of Mexico as a way to include France among countries with influence in the Americas and to exclude Anglophone countries and played a role in his campaign to imply cultural kinship of the region with France, transform France into a cultural and political leader of the area, and install Maximilian of Habsburg as emperor of the Second Mexican Empire.[12] This term was also used in 1861 by French scholars in La revue des races Latines, a magazine dedicated to the Pan-Latinism movement.[13]
joeyspn 12y ago
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Romance_languages http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Romance_languages

davidw 12y ago

There are some pretty major differences between eating habits in Mexico, and, say, Italy. The people in the former are statistically quite obese, whereas Italians tend to be in pretty good shape.

VLM 12y ago

The French Paradox is basically a politically correct way for standard american diet believers to talk about how paleo style diets mysteriously seem healthier. How could it possibly be that lower carb, less processed, higher natural fat diets lead to health when the big agribusinesses who purchased the official USDA guidelines to increase their profits insist on the opposite as the path to health despite the evidence of the obesity epidemic? With a strong side dish of puritan guilt, if it tastes good it must be bad for you, and french-style cooking usually tastes pretty good.