3 ms·
I don't think so because the chance of using a node is an independent event. So you will most likely have the same chance every time.
by LunaSea 12y ago
I don't think so because the chance of using a node is an independent event. So you will most likely have the same chance every time.
- deleted 12y ago[deleted]
- sp332 12y agoRight! I mean cumulatively, after connecting 25 times, you have a 50/50 chance that at least one of those connections went through one of these nodes. (1 - 0.027) ^ 25 ~= 0.5
- tga_d 12y agoNit: I think that should be 1-(1-.0.27)^25 ~= 0.5. Obviously it ends up being about 1/2 either way, but you're measuring the chance that you used one of the nodes, not that you avoided all of them.