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This is interesting. Could you explain how it is avoidable? I am genuinely asking, not looking for something to argue about (I may disagree, just want to make
by geebee 12y ago
This is interesting. Could you explain how it is avoidable? I am genuinely asking, not looking for something to argue about (I may disagree, just want to make sure you know I'm not looking for something to disagree with, I am asking this because I really don't know).
My limited understanding is that people can be sent to jail for failure to pay even if they have turned over all existing assets (i.e., no concealing assets or fraud) and have made no effort to evade payment. For instance, if someone "loses" a job and the judge believes that the person is not making a sufficient effort to find one and resume payment, that can be sufficient to send someone to jail. Is that the case?
- Canada 12y agoMy understanding is that effort is irrelevant. Either the man pays or is imprisoned. I wonder how much of these debts not money paid by the state to the monther, but are fines or penalties that generate revenue for the state itself.