I won't ever argue that women aren't as good at programming as men (and it doesn't make any sense to suppose they've gotten worse since the 1980s...) If it's g

I won't ever argue that women aren't as good at programming as men (and it doesn't make any sense to suppose they've gotten worse since the 1980s...) If it's gotten worse since the 1980s solely due to cultural bias, you can't explain that by a cultural bias remaining the same throughout that period, you have to assume that the cultural bias changed. Out of curiosity, what's the accepted explanation for that?