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Just trying to understand from the first principle: If ISPs doesn't charge for facebook usage, then who _actually_ pays? Someone has to...right? Just curious.
by mkagenius 12y ago
Just trying to understand from the first principle:
If ISPs doesn't charge for facebook usage, then who _actually_ pays?
Someone has to...right? Just curious.
- miteshashar 12y agoFacebook pays. And then owns the user.
- nileshtrivedi 12y agoSo, ultimately it's still the user who pays. But he pays relatively more, because now there is less competition (leveraging the network/access to acquire and retain users).
- balls187 12y agoYes, it's a clever way for Facebook to boost their numbers tremendously by giving pipe to people, then counting them as FB users.
- rhino369 12y agoThe ISP connecting to facebook may not have any marginal cost, and if there is a marginal cost is it very low. So nobody or the ISP.
- denzil_correa 12y agoInitially, Amazon pays. Once the users are locked in - ISPs demand more money from Amazon. Of course, Amazon passes on these costs to the consumer in small little $1-2 unnoticeable amount. In the end, the consumer pays Amazon to have special access on the ISPs plus the ISPs to make money from Amazon despite no additional service or product.
- deleted 12y ago[deleted]