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But you'll break backward compatibility. Also, there are too many different accents for any one-to-one mapping between spelling and pronunciation to work.
by mdemare 17y ago
But you'll break backward compatibility. Also, there are too many different accents for any one-to-one mapping between spelling and pronunciation to work.
- mattmcknight 17y agoNot really. Did you ever read Shakespeare? Language and spelling are always changing. It works in many other languages as well, despite the existence of accents.
- CWuestefeld 17y agoDid you ever read Shakespeare? Couldn't make heads or tails of his writing. Maybe because it's shifted so much in the intervening centuries that it's only marginally comprehensible to someone who learned the modern tongue? How has Gutenberg changed the rate of change in languages? Has greater availability of printed materials held things steady longer? How is the Intertubes changing this? Has the ability to instantly view the work of people representing a zillion languages accelerated change?