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No, it's not the same. If you have 11 people, one of them has 10 units of money, the rest have 1, then there's 20 units of money ($) in the system. Let's also a
by sz4kerto 12y ago
No, it's not the same. If you have 11 people, one of them has 10 units of money, the rest have 1, then there's 20 units of money ($) in the system. Let's also assume you have 100 units of resources (R) that people can buy. So $1 is convertible to 5R. Now you print money and give everyone $1. There is now $31 in the system, so $1 can buy 3.22R. However, the purchasing power of the people who had $1 now increased from 5R to 6.44R. The purchasing power of the 'rich' guy decreases from 50R to 35R.
Or you can take money away from the 'rich' and redistribute it. That also has some effect on prices because of other reasons (changes the consumer baskets). But as you can see, money printing is basically tax on cash reserves.
- DaFranker 12y agoPlaying the Enemy here: What happens if what you have isn't 100R, but a company that hires one contractor part-time to build houses and make food at a flat 1$ upstream resource cost using machines that currently have 90% idle time? Wouldn't this situation mean that giving everyone that second 1$ let everyone have a home and food and solve the problem entirely? The company is also happier due to more profits and higher efficiency.