3 ms·
You've just misused the no true scotsman fallacy. The no true scotsman fallacy is when someone attempts to apply an unreasonable/unlikely interpretation to a pr
by baddox 12y ago
You've just misused the no true scotsman fallacy. The no true scotsman fallacy is when someone attempts to apply an unreasonable/unlikely interpretation to a previous claim when presented with a counterexample to the reasonable interpretation of that claim. It is not simply any claim of the form "all/no members of group X have property Y."
- ddoolin 12y agoI see your point -- thanks for the explanation (and neighboring comment from mike).