I'm very surprised by those figures. Is that saying of 58 people studied, if 2 more people had stronger negative effects to placebo than Gluten then there'd be

I'm very surprised by those figures. Is that saying of 58 people studied, if 2 more people had stronger negative effects to placebo than Gluten then there'd be no discernible difference between placebo and Gluten? How does that show a significant correlation?