This is the most important question in this thread (though it was worded confusingly). There was a statistically discernible difference, but what is the magnitu

This is the most important question in this thread (though it was worded confusingly). There was a statistically discernible difference, but what is the magnitude of that difference? The reddit thread[0] on this paper has a lot of nonsense, but also has people with actual access to the paper. One informative comment (keeping in mind this study was done only on people who already identified as gluten sensitive): > 31 of the individuals had an equal response to gluten or placebo, a further 13 had no significant difference. 5 individuals had stronger negative effects to placebo, 9 had stronger effects to Gluten. The three mentioned were over 2 standard deviations above the mean, and hence considered to be sensitive. > There did appear to be a general increase across the board for symptoms, however the one caveat that was reported in results, but not discussed was the fact that individuals report worse symptoms (p=0.009) in the first week of the trial compared to the second. > There were also no individual symptoms that showed a significant difference between the placebo and gluten. Only when all symptoms were combined as a sum did they have a difference. [0] https://www.reddit.com/r/science/comments/2x844y/randomized_doubleblind_placebocontrolled_trial/coxt7iw https://www.reddit.com/r/science/comments/2x844y/randomized_...