I think the article presents a false scenario. Leaving aside the notorious ease with which some of these "polls" manipulate results by virtue of changing the wo

I think the article presents a false scenario. Leaving aside the notorious ease with which some of these "polls" manipulate results by virtue of changing the wording of the questions. I mean, if you really ask yourself what does it mean: "Do you think the poor have it easy?" It's vague, and already has a pre-implied bias associated with it. There's no "yes, but". There's "no" and there's "yes, I'm a selfish rich bastard because my privilege blinds me of the plight of the poor" (if you believe the tone of the article". Most people when answering yes probably do so because they have "some" notion or reason that the poor have it easy in some way. Perhaps they simply believe that the poor should work for the benefits, etc. It all get's clumped under "yes" in their mind, but the interpreter and subsequent reporter blows it out of proportion. What, I personally believe, it boils down to is that the "rich" are not comparing the poors' situation to their own. They're mostly comparing it to the hypothetical situation of the poor having to work hard (I assume via manual labor) to be comfortable or the receive the benefits mentioned.