4 ms·
I disagree. First, following your first link, I found the CDC bullet point that says 53% of drug overdose deaths in the US in 2012 were "related to pharmaceuti
by ridgeguy 12y ago
I disagree.
First, following your first link, I found the CDC bullet point that says 53% of drug overdose deaths in the US in 2012 were "related to pharmaceuticals". Note that doesn't say "were prescription drug deaths" as you did.
"Related" includes those deaths in which someone who had a legal prescription for a drug used something with it that was fatal - a simple example would be alcohol combined with many of the opiate painkillers, but it would also include somebody on the antidepressant drug selegeline who ate a tyramine-rich food like bleu cheese or sausage and died of hypertensive crisis. There are many other examples of deaths "related to pharmaceuticals" that would not involve painkillers, nor other pharmaceuticals used as directed. I recommend you do the analysis needed to see what's actually going on, not merely that which may constitute confirmation bias for your views.
Second - of course there are externalities that could well account for the increase in painkiller prescriptions since 1991.
Just one example - we have an aging population. When people age, they encounter illnesses that hurt. Osteoarthritis, for example - it is common for those who have it to be unable to do something as simple as remove a twist-off jar lid because of the pain involved. Ditto climbing three or four steps because of pain in their feet and knees. Nevermind diabetic neuropathy, and other such painful, age-related diseases. Have you explored the increase in our aging population and projected the numbers of people who could reasonably be expected to need painkillers to remain functional as they age? What did you find?
Further, one reason for the increased level of painkiller prescriptions could well be that analgesia has been underprescribed due to irrational prejudice against it and we're finally realizing it. In the US, opioid pharmaceuticals seem be regarded as "The Great Satan" by some Americans and by American law enforcement. Consequently, pain relief - which should be a straightforward (if complex) medical issue - is demonized, hindered, and encumbered with useless transactional friction.
So, yes - it's certain that our aging population has increased the need for painkiller prescriptions since 1991. How much, I don't know. If you look into it quantitatively, please let us know. But from what I've seen in the medical profession, the increase could well be independently explained by the recognition that pain relief is critical to quicker recovery from acute illness and equally critical for prolonged productivity and quality of life, and the shedding of prejudices that have blocked such recognition. I understand YMMV.
- groby_b 12y ago> "Related" includes those deaths [...] for a drug used something with it that was fatal No, it does not. Full quote: "In 2012, of the 41,502 drug overdose deaths in the United States, 22,114 (53%) were related to pharmaceuticals.[6]" So, 53% of drug overdose deaths. Not drug interaction. Nor pharmaceuticals used as directed. > I recommend you do the analysis So far, I've provided data, and you arguing semantics. Since you seem to imply deeper insights, I'd appreciate it if you shared your data sources/analysis. > In the US, opioid pharmaceuticals seem be regarded as "The Great Satan" I'm not buying that argument, given the amount of opioid usage in the U.S. compared to the rest of the world. (IIRC, close to 100% of hydrocodone and 80% of oxycodone are used in the U.S). Not exactly a "Great Satan" kind of treatment. > we have an aging population. Yes. But the aging population is not three times as big as it was '91. > and the shedding of prejudices that have blocked such recognition I am all for shedding prejudices that block recognition of useful medication. But for opioid usage, there are questions that are simply not answered: * Why do >45% of Americans supposedly suffer chronic pain? Compared to ~20% in Europe?[1] * Why do we require 203M opioid Rx to treat this? That would indicate that the vast majority suffers from severe pain, treatable only with opioids. (Compare to ~30% of pain suffers in Europe[1]) * Why is the amount of overdose deaths 7x bigger than in Europe? [2] (With a larger population in Europe!) And we need to answer them if we want to use opioids safely & without prejudices. I don't condemn opioid use per se, but I'd really like an explanation of these discrepancies. [1] http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1016/j.ejpain.2005.06.009/abstract http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1016/j.ejpain.2005.06.... [2] http://www.emcdda.europa.eu/attachements.cfm/att_212359_EN_Overdose%20deaths_updated.pdf http://www.emcdda.europa.eu/attachements.cfm/att_212359_EN_O...