3 ms·
> Then how why would they be the "top" 0.1%? If everyone is equal, there is no "top". Start from: If all were almost equal the top 0.1% would be doing more o
by lultimouomo 12y ago
> Then how why would they be the "top" 0.1%? If everyone is equal, there is no "top".
Start from:
If all were almost equal the top 0.1% would be doing more or less as well as everyone else.
Then take the limit for almost -> exactly