A country where everyone is equally poor has a lower (better) Gini co-efficient than a country where few are poor and few are very rich. How is "equally poor"

A country where everyone is equally poor has a lower (better) Gini co-efficient than a country where few are poor and few are very rich. How is "equally poor" bad from the point of view of inequality enabling services like Uber though? In the extreme case, if everyone in India was "equally poor" as you put it, no one should be able to do jobs as cheaply as the author mentions.