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You can't possibly argue that poor people consume more in absolute terms thus you must mean as a percent of wealth. The relevant measure: http://en.wikipedia.o
by yummyfajitas 12y ago
You can't possibly argue that poor people consume more in absolute terms thus you must mean as a percent of wealth.
The relevant measure: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marginal_propensity_to_consume http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marginal_propensity_to_consume
...allows society through its elected representatives to make such investments and to invest...
Which is irrelevant to this conversation since we are discussing taxing people to pay for consumption.