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And to answer the first question, he probably has all of his equity. If there was no vesting schedule for his shares, he would already own them regardless of w
by birken 12y ago
And to answer the first question, he probably has all of his equity.
If there was no vesting schedule for his shares, he would already own them regardless of when he left.
In the case he did have a vesting schedule (which is a best practice), it was likely 4 years. So assuming the company was founded 2 years ago, then he'd have vested half his stock, which would mean that is his regardless of when he left. Then, when leaving he probably made an agreement with the company to accelerate the vesting of rest of the stock in exchange for any or all of the following: maintaining his board position, agreeing not to sue the company, helping future guidance for the company, or other stuff.
It is also possible that he had a previous agreement with the company that if he was fired from his job that all of his stock would automatically vest (this is a fairly common provision a founder will want when they allow outsiders onto the board).