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Yes, it does, but individual IPv6 addresses are not directly comparable to individual IPv4 addresses, because protocol mechanisms assume that every network ("LA
by zAy0LfpBZLC8mAC 12y ago
Yes, it does, but individual IPv6 addresses are not directly comparable to individual IPv4 addresses, because protocol mechanisms assume that every network ("LAN") segment has its own /64. For example, IPv6 stateless auto configuration (for automatic stateless address assignment, another central innovation of IPv6) only works with a /64, so you can't use it if you have to subnet a /64. As far as the RFCs are concerned, a /64 is the minimal allocation that is used for a network segment, anything else is a hack.