5 ms·

How do you know that most drivers have been in at least one traffic accident?

• jamestnz 12y ago
  It's not necessary that most other drivers have had an accident for most people to have had below the average number of accidents. Consider a population of 100 drivers, none of whom have ever had a traffic accident. The average number of accidents per driver is therefore zero. Suddenly, two of them collide. Now, 2/100 drivers have had an accident, and 98/100 drivers have still never had an accident. The average number of accidents per driver is now therefore 0.02. Since 98/100 drivers have had 0 accidents, but the average number of accidents per driver is 0.02, then 98% of drivers have had below the average number of accidents.
  • drewbug 12y ago
    Ah, I see now. That makes sense. Thank you.
• RogerL 12y ago
  He knows that some have. Thus, the average # of accidents per person is greater than zero. His # is zero. Hence, he is better than average by that measure. I don't think that is a good measure or way of thinking about it, but it is mathematically correct.
  • baddox 12y ago
    What do you think a better measure would be?
• baddox 12y ago
  In fact, I guessed that most drivers haven't been in one traffic accident.