4 ms·
This isn't quite as clear cut as it might seem. See, for example, the first comment for Mandarin: http://wals.info/valuesets/44A-mnd http://wals.info/valuesets
by howardbeware 12y ago
This isn't quite as clear cut as it might seem. See, for example, the first comment for Mandarin:
http://wals.info/valuesets/44A-mnd http://wals.info/valuesets/44A-mnd
- deleted 12y ago[deleted]
- hawkice 12y agoThis was precisely the point I came here to make. Saying the third person singular pronoun is gendered in Mandarin isn't quite right (the 3 characters all sound the same) -- it's gendered in Chinese characters, which is why (I assume) they didn't break things out by dialect. Also, given how much wackiness is in French, I would assume something similar to be true -- that the male/female shows up when you write it but not when you speak it. Can we get a confirmation on that?
- jolux 12y agoIn both written and spoken French it doesn't really change. French is one of the most gendered languages in existence. Every noun has a gender. I'm not exactly sure of the syntax of your question but gendered pronouns are definitely both spoken and written.
- brok3nmachine 12y agoIn French, the he/she (il/elle) pronouns are pronounced when spoken.
- bluesnow 12y agoThe third person pronoun is definitely gendered (and different, as another commenter said). It is also gendered in the third person plural (ils / elles) There is a neutral pronoun, but it mostly is used in the same way we'd use the first person plural in English. Or to express the same thing as the 'One' in 'One can ___'. French also has an inflection on the verbs, nouns and adjectives that are grammatical gender markers.