4 ms·
I'll give you the same reply I gave to yodsanklai, who made the same (incorrect) response: > a significant majority of members of the 1982 list would have qual
by yummyfajitas 12y ago
I'll give you the same reply I gave to yodsanklai, who made the same (incorrect) response:
> a significant majority of members of the 1982 list would have qualified for the 2012 list if they had accumulated wealth at a real rate of even 4 percent a year.
Further, your world cup analogy shows how inequality of results is not strong evidence of gboudraias' claim: "Those with the most money can... make the most money. "
Owning a 2006 or 2010 world cup does not give you a greater ability to play soccer - the World cup inequality between Germany/Brazil and India/USA is purely meritocratic.