3 ms·
Assuming by function you refer to the "agents'" \Phi, where do they make the assumption that it is injective? I see nothing to the effect in the text, and the f
by 4bpp 12y ago
Assuming by function you refer to the "agents'" \Phi, where do they make the assumption that it is injective? I see nothing to the effect in the text, and the functions in the counterexample on page 6 are not injective.
- Russell91 12y agoOh, oops. I was reading their statement: This interpretation is incorrect without the additional hypothesis that V (x) is a one-to-one function. as - all of the phi functions must be one-to-one. Looks like they made the same assumption that I would have. This was bothering me though so thanks for your response.