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That's extremely unlikely. How is kill rate defined?
by vecter 12y ago
That's extremely unlikely. How is kill rate defined?
- etrevino 12y agoI believe he means kill ratio. So, the number of planes shot down versus the number of V-1s shot down. If one RAF fighter was shot down for every two V-1s the ratio would be 2:1 in favor of the RAF. This is a little bit plausible. This is how the RAF shot down V-1s: http://i.dailymail.co.uk/i/pix/2011/05/08/article-1384740-0BF424C400000578-18_636x774.jpg http://i.dailymail.co.uk/i/pix/2011/05/08/article-1384740-0B... (picture courtesy of the Daily Fail) So, the kill ratio of V-1s might have been higher against the RAF because it was so hard to down V-1s and doing so was hazardous. We're still talking a tiny fraction of the craft engaged, though.
- autokad 12y agoYes, according to the chart above it took down 351 aircraft. The toppling method wasnt the only one implemented, they also tried shooting them down with their guns; however, they would have to get close and often resulted in the destruction of their own aircraft as well.
- etrevino 12y agoI wish I'd noticed that chart earlier. You're right, the V1 ratio was much better.