4 ms·

In this case the "intervention" was at the behest of the actors within the market itself. But somehow it magically doesn't count as an act of the market?

• seanflyon 12y ago
  Behest is the key word there. We are not talking actions of actors within the market, but about government interfering with market forces. That does not cease to be the case just because someone asked them to do it.
  • sliverstorm 12y ago
    But if the government was formed by the market actors, and is composed of market actors, and is directed by market actors, are the actions of the government not the market acting on itself?
    • seanflyon 12y ago
      The government is not part of the market. We do not choose whether or not the government has authority over us, it just does. There is no competition, no _market_ there. Without that distinction I cannot think of anything that would qualify as outside of the market and the term would become meaningless.