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Why are fines not tied to a percent of revenue for a given time period? These flat-fee fines look big to the little folks but typically are pocket change for t
by click170 12y ago
Why are fines not tied to a percent of revenue for a given time period?
These flat-fee fines look big to the little folks but typically are pocket change for these big companies, it should actually hurt (see punishment) when they do something wrong.
- chimeracoder 12y agoIt's not like there isn't precedent for percent-revenue-over-time penalties in the law (albeit perhaps not by the FCC). For example, Google was ordered to pay 1.36% of AdWords revenue to Vringo[0] (though this was later overturned). [0] http://arstechnica.com/tech-policy/2014/01/court-orders-google-to-pay-1-36-of-adwords-revenue-for-infringing-patents/ http://arstechnica.com/tech-policy/2014/01/court-orders-goog...
- eli 12y agoBut it's not a flat fee. According to the FCC, it's actually the largest fine ever for misuse of data for marketing purposes.
- delecti 12y agoThis works out to ~$4 per affected customer. The issue is that they advertised other Verizon services to customers without giving them an option to opt-out. They effectively paid $4 per sales lead, and for leads to customers they already did business with, that's a pretty phenomenal deal considering the breadth of services they could then try to sell. Figure 1/10 of those customers got a $10 monthly service and kept it for a year. That's $24m in revenue on a conservative estimate.
- eli 12y agoI agree in principle with the idea that the fine should always be more than the potential profit, but I think it would be really hard to implement such a rule. Anyway, I don't agree with your math. Surely many/most of the affected customers would not have bothered opting out even if they had been given proper notice. Opting out is kind of a hassle. And a 10% sales conversion is ridiculously generous by like three orders magnitude. I'd be surprised if 10% of people even open their messages.