5 ms·
Okay, I'll bite: > Here's what the science says: "... antidepressant medications have reported only modest benefits over placebo treatment, and when unpublishe
by simonster 12y ago
Okay, I'll bite:
> Here's what the science says: "... antidepressant medications have reported only modest benefits over placebo treatment, and when unpublished trial data are included, the benefit falls below accepted criteria for clinical significance."
With all due respect, read the paper you linked to! Here's what it says in the places you didn't quote:
"Meta-analyses of antidepressant efficacy based on data from published trials reveal benefits that are statistically significant, but of marginal clinical significance [1]."
"Although the difference between these means easily attained statistical significance (Table 2, Model 3a), it does not meet the three-point drug–placebo criterion for clinical significance used by NICE."
"Although drug type and duration of treatment were unrelated to improvement, the drug versus placebo difference remained significant, and amount of improvement was a function of baseline severity (Table 2, Model 1a)."
"The difference between drug and placebo exceeded NICE's 0.50 standardized mean difference criterion at comparisons exceeding 28 in baseline severity."
> First, you're overlooking the fact that the studies that got SSRIs approved in the first place relied on animal studies using the same animals.
SSRIs were approved several decades ago, but studies in the last decade still show the same effects, e.g. the study I linked to above, which was conducted in 2009 using fluoxetine, which was approved in 1987. The lifespan of a mouse is around a year, so there is zero chance that any of the animals are the same. In Figure 1, it reproduces the result that antidepressants reduce depressive behaviors in mouse models on a variety of tests. This is not an isolated result; basically all of the rodent studies show similar findings.
> Second, imagine a scientist saying "... just because mice genetically depleted of serotonin do not show depression-like symptoms does not mean that toying with serotonin levels in a normal brain cannot alleviate depression." Surely you see the logical error you're making here -- the argument essentially says, "if it hasn't been disproven, then it might be true." It equates an absence of evidence, with evidence.
This is in response to your claim that "the drugs could not possibly work." The drugs can work even if serotonin-depleted animals are not depressed. And as I've stated, there is an abundance of evidence that the drugs do work in mice, even though serotonin-depleted mice are not depressed.
> > In fact, antidepressant treatment does alleviate depression in mice ...
> Not according to the FDA's meta-analysis quoted above.
That meta-analysis is in humans. Mice are not humans! That is a big reason why it's so hard to develop good antidepressants in the first place.
> Apart from a well-documented Placebo effect, which therapeutic action are you alluding to?
The therapeutic action in mice, which is replicated in the study I linked to and many others.
As far as DBS goes, one of the problems with determining if DBS actually works for depression is that most studies have not been placebo controlled. Also, the largest study that I'm aware of was recently shut down by the FDA for lack of efficacy: http://neurocritic.blogspot.com/2014/01/broaden-trial-of-dbs-for-treatment.html http://neurocritic.blogspot.com/2014/01/broaden-trial-of-dbs...
- lutusp 12y ago> The therapeutic action in mice, which is replicated in the study I linked to and many others. Would that be the same therapeutic effect that was falsified in the most recent study, the one that showed no correlation between serotonin and depression? Neither study represents anything like a conclusive outcome, but both must be read with an open mind -- who funded the studies, how strong is the evidence, what are the p-values, and so forth. But let's step back. Do you know what's missing from this exchange, and do you know why such exchanges tend to be so wordy and inconclusive? Both of us are discussing symptoms, descriptions, not causes. This issue will never move forward until people move beyond psychiatric descriptions and locate a biological cause for depression. Science requires a focus on causes, explanations -- descriptions aren't enough. And this is not science, because psychiatry is not science. For those who doubt the central role of explanations in science, I have an anecdote -- Doctor Dubious invents a new treatment for the common cold. His treatment is to shake a dried gourd over the cold sufferer until the patient gets better. Sometimes the treatment takes a week, but it always works — the cold sufferer always recovers. So, why doesn't Doctor Dubious get a Nobel Prize for his breakthrough? The answer is that the procedure is only a description — shake the gourd, patient recovers — without an explanation, without a basis for actually learning anything or being truthful about the connection between cause and effect. It's the same with psychiatry.
- dllthomas 12y ago"For those who doubt the central role of explanations in science, I have an anecdote -- Doctor Dubious invents a new treatment for the common cold. His treatment is to shake a dried gourd over the cold sufferer until the patient gets better. Sometimes the treatment takes a week, but it always works — the cold sufferer always recovers. So, why doesn't Doctor Dubious get a Nobel Prize for his breakthrough?" You always go to this example, but it does not convince anyone of anything because you are not only foregoing explanation but also a control group. If you do have a randomly assigned group of people who get gourd-shook and a randomly assigned group of people who do not, and those who do recover significantly faster than the those who do not, and you have no idea how gourd-shaking might cause that... maybe it's still incorrect to say "the study showed gourd-shaking effective in treating the cold" but that's not intuitively obvious - explain why.