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Just a question, prior to Watergate, would it have been possible for someone to buy up hours of TV ads nationwide attacking the opponent of the person they want
by gaadd33 12y ago
Just a question, prior to Watergate, would it have been possible for someone to buy up hours of TV ads nationwide attacking the opponent of the person they want to win? I don't know anything about election law, so I'm wondering if something changed or if attack ads and massive spending just became more accepted.
- smsm42 12y agoI'm not sure about TV ads specifically (TV ads probably were much less important in the 60s than now) but there's absolutely no reason to prevent somebody from speaking against any political candidate. If the First Amendment protects anything, it would definitely protect that.
- specialist 12y agoReagan abolished the Fairness Doctrine. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fairness_Doctrine http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fairness_Doctrine