3 ms·
I think he's asserting that if experimenters have free will, then particles do, which means we do as well. This isn't a proof of particles having free will. Th
by danielrm26 12y ago
I think he's asserting that if experimenters have free will, then particles do, which means we do as well.
This isn't a proof of particles having free will. That's an intermediary step to saying we have it as well, and therefore you can start with a step that says we do.
- jamesaguilar 12y agoYou need to read it again. The person you're replying to has correctly stated what is shown.