The manager of the restaurant should probably learn to be more tolerant, but it's pretty clear on any plausible reading of the U.S. Constitution that he has not

The manager of the restaurant should probably learn to be more tolerant, but it's pretty clear on any plausible reading of the U.S. Constitution that he has not violated the First Amendment. It does, after all, start with the words "Congress shall make no law." But there is an interesting twist. What if the manager tries to kick you out, but you refuse to leave? Then he calls the police and the police drag you out. At least in a certain sense, the government is now enforcing the manager's intolerance. When it comes to the First Amendment, it's pretty clearly established that even on these facts, the First Amendment still has not been violated. But there are other rights where the situation is more complicated. Courts will not enforce, for example, a racially restrictive covenant preventing African Americans from buying property in a certain neighborhood because to do so would violate the Fourteenth Amendment. (See Shelly v. Kreamer, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shelley_v._Kraemer http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shelley_v._Kraemer) But in many respects, the situations are analogous: the government is asked to enforce individuals' otherwise private biases. It's not at all clear (at least to me, or anyone I know who studies this area of law) what accounts for this difference. Food for thought.