It's only "obvious" because it fits into Assange's narrative. If he indeed is guilty to the allegations, would it still be "obvious" that this is a political ch

It's only "obvious" because it fits into Assange's narrative. If he indeed is guilty to the allegations, would it still be "obvious" that this is a political charade? To me it is not obvious. Yes, it could be that you are right, but what proves it?