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No, because the final ticket purchaser would have been even happier with the ticket plus the extra cash he would have had if he had not needed to buy from the s
by jblow 12y ago
No, because the final ticket purchaser would have been even happier with the ticket plus the extra cash he would have had if he had not needed to buy from the scalper, and/or the venue or promoter would have been happier with the extra money that is instead taken by the scalper.
Come on, this is obvious.
- rahimnathwani 12y agoNo, because the final ticket purchaser would have been even happier with the ticket plus the extra cash he would have had if he had not needed to buy from the scalper But in my example, he wouldn't have gotten the ticket at all. The ticket would have been had by someone like me, who was barely willing to pay the face value, but was lucky enough to get one of the limited supply of tickets when they were released for sale. and/or the venue or promoter would have been happier with the extra money that is instead taken by the scalper But in my example the venue or promoter has already set the price lower than the market-clearing price. If s/he hadn't done that, then the scalper would not have popped into existence, as the market would already have cleared.