3 ms·
In this case, it's exactly as you say: the employer has decided to reduce its employees' working hours. It just happens that the employer is also the government
by _delirium 12y ago
In this case, it's exactly as you say: the employer has decided to reduce its employees' working hours. It just happens that the employer is also the government. The experiment in Göteborg discussed in this article involves only municipal employees: the city is experimenting with moving its employees to 6-hour work days, and seeing what effect there is on productivity, morale, and other such measures. There's no requirement that other employers follow suit.
I believe even the 40-hour week is not statutory. At least in Denmark (maybe the same in Sweden?), the basic parameters of employment (maximum working hours, overtime pay, minimum wages, etc.), are negotiated between the employer's confederation and the union confederation, rather than set by statute. However, since the unionization rate is over 90% and the basic parameters are set through overall framework agreements (applying to all workplaces covered by the confederations, not separate company-by-company negotiations), these negotiated agreements de-facto set the conditions at almost all workplaces.
The Danish switch in 1992 from 40-hour to 37-hour weeks, for example, was entirely through union negotiations, not done by legislation.
- vidarh 12y agoIn the EU, all countries are bound by the Working Time Directive unless they have exemptions (I think only the UK has any major exemptions), which does not make the 40-hour week statutory, but does set an upper limit (with some exceptions) at 48 hours/week.
- Cederfjard 12y ago> At least in Denmark (maybe the same in Sweden?) Yes, the same is true up here.