3 ms·
I see what you mean, but since the 1970s speech researchers have been splitting seconds into 10ms or 25ms intervals, that's not my decision. They could have sta
by ar7hur 12y ago
I see what you mean, but since the 1970s speech researchers have been splitting seconds into 10ms or 25ms intervals, that's not my decision. They could have started from any duration but they haven't. And you could start to express time with the Aztec calendar if you wanted. But you won't.
- woodson 12y agoIt's not (entirely) arbitrary. Speech is variable, our vocal tract shape changes all the time, but not arbitrarily fast. From a source-filter theory perspective it does make sense to consider speech production over short time frames as linear time-invariant systems. What this has to do with 44.1 kHz is beyond me, however..