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How would that differ from duplicating any other album without permission? (Unless the buyer also buys the right to distribute copies.)
by _kst_ 13y ago
How would that differ from duplicating any other album without permission? (Unless the buyer also buys the right to distribute copies.)
- paradoja 13y agoIn that there is no way to argue that the artist lost sales due to the copies, thus, no harm made.
- drcube 13y ago"Lost sales" is not a necessary component of copyright infringement, if I recall.
- JohnTHaller 13y agoIt is a component when calculating any damages, though.
- drcube 13y agoIs it? How do they figure? Or do they just use whatever number RIAA gives them?
- rch 13y agoThe difference is, that the buyer would actually own the original, with all the associated rights. Maybe see to it that a few singles get lots of radio play, and then resell the complete original at auction - sounds fair to me.