4 ms·

The past tense is "malleableized".

• pygy_ 13y ago
  "Modified"?
  • Aqueous 13y ago
    Mauled.
  • fla 13y ago
    Reshaped
  • chalst 13y ago
    "Bent"? Analogy to bent money seems apt.
• 001sky 13y ago
  Malleable is a descriptive adjective (not a verb)[1] Malleability is a property-noun (also not a verb)[2] These words do not have "past-tenses" [1] http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_english/malleable http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_eng... [2] http://www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/malleability http://www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/malleability
  • gojomo 13y ago
    The verb malleate (shape with a hammer), related to the adjective malleable (able to be shaped as with a hammer), has the past tense malleated (as grandparent comment properly intuits). http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/malleate#Verb http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/malleate#Verb
  • dredmorbius 13y ago
    FYI, GCIDE lists "malleate" citing 1913 webster as a transitive verb: Malleate \Mal"le*ate\, v. t. [imp. & p. p. {Malleated}; p. pr. & vb. n. {Malleating}.] [L. malleatus hammered, fr. malleus a hammer. See {Mall}, v. t.] To hammer; to beat into a plate or leaf. [1913 Webster]
    • 001sky 13y ago
      A transaction is not "malleable" in the hammer-hitting sense. It is only "malleable" in the abstract sense (of pliable). It makes more (common usage) sense to "exploit the transactions malleability" (pliability) than to say the transaction was "malleated" (ie, hit by a hammer). That's all I was trying to point out.
      • dredmorbius 13y ago
        Given that "malleable"'s meaning has evolved from the same root, you're being pedantic.