4 ms·
If they could get a court order, why did they not do so? I am really amused about the law feeling in the US. It seems to me, that in the US it is enough that a
by PythonicAlpha 13y ago
If they could get a court order, why did they not do so?
I am really amused about the law feeling in the US. It seems to me, that in the US it is enough that a big company thinks that it can get a court order -- in that case nothing else is needed -- don't waste the time of the courts just go on.
Why not allow MS to also do the punishment -- don't waste any court-time!
Really cute!
To come to your question: There are cases, where you can get warrants because you infringe patents. So, when MS thinks, that I could infringe one -- why not search my office documents first??
Is this enough example? I would say, there could be thousands ... just imagine a world where the lawyers of the big companies make the court decisions ... <sarcastic>would be OK, they are making the laws anyway!</sarcastic>
- kvb 13y agoBecause, in the US legal system, you can't get a court order to compel yourself to do something (as far as I am aware).