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If the unit normal distribution is the distribution under discussion, there's no difference. In that case they become the same. Here's how a physicist computes
by lutusp 13y ago
If the unit normal distribution is the distribution under discussion, there's no difference. In that case they become the same. Here's how a physicist computes a p-value given a sigma value:
http://i.imgur.com/pcjr6cN.gif http://i.imgur.com/pcjr6cN.gif
Note that the unit normal distribution is the underlying context.