4 ms·

Violating the law doesn't automatically violate any random contracts you have entered into.

• dangrossman 13y ago
  If the violation of the law is the purpose of the contract, then it's not a legal contract. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Illegal_agreement http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Illegal_agreement
  • copergi 13y ago
    It isn't the purpose of the contract, that's a complete non-sequitur.
    • deleted 13y ago
      [deleted]