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> an alphabet has, by definition, a 1 to 1 correspondence between a single character and a sound. Do any languages have an alphabet according to this definitio
by DougBTX 13y ago
> an alphabet has, by definition, a 1 to 1 correspondence between a single character and a sound.
Do any languages have an alphabet according to this definition?
- stcredzero 13y agoKorean?
- alxndr 13y agoIIRC Hangul has some weird pronunciation quirks depending on where some letters are in a syllable.
- snogglethorpe 13y agoAt the least, Korean has voiced-versus-non-voiced-depending-on-word-position changes, and IIRC there are other similar rules (about changing pronunciation in certain contexts) as well.
- anon4 13y agoCyrillic-using languages generally do.
- gurkendoktor 13y agoThe 'o' in Russian is pronounced 'a' half of the time (non-scientific estimate). :(
- Sharlin 13y agoFinnish almost does. There are minor exceptions, though.