4 ms·
So, if an emperor has a right to take country by force, why not grant the same right to inhabitants of that same country to free themselves by force? Besides, h
by levosmetalo 13y ago
So, if an emperor has a right to take country by force, why not grant the same right to inhabitants of that same country to free themselves by force? Besides, how any sane person can find justifying attacking one small neighboring country and killing one third of its male population and committing such atrocities against humanity just to "revenge" the death of one person, for which Serbia wasn't even responsible. After all, if Bosnia was really legitimate part of AH empire, as opposed to occupied country, then why attack Serbia because one AH citizen killed another one. Seems like blaming the victim, since Serbia was clearly the biggest victim of WW1.
As you already said, one Bosnian Serb (which btw declared himself as Yugoslavian, like many members of his Mlada Bosna (Young Bosnia) organization) kills one tyrant, then AH and Germany attack half of the Europe, and Serbia and Gavrilo Princip are guilt of WW1? Makes no sense to me.