4 ms·

OT: is it "No Wine Till It's Time" or "No Wine Till Its Time"? I'm pretty sure it's the latter.

• jodrellblank 17y ago
  it's -> it is / it has its -> belonging to it No Wine Until it is Time -> it's (But if you are contracting "until", you should have an apostrophe - 'til).
  • deleted 17y ago
    [deleted]
  • jeroen 17y ago
    Nothing wrong with "till": http://www.thefreedictionary.com/till http://www.thefreedictionary.com/till
  • ck113 17y ago
    Ok, I know it's violently tangential and pretty silly, but I noticed this in the article too. I thought it was interesting because (I'm guessing) it's not a case of the author not knowing the grammatical rules you've just described, but of his not knowing the saying he's quoting. The phrase is "no wine before its time." Not as in "before it is time", but as in "before that wine's appointed time." It was the slogan of the Paul Masson winery, though I can't find a great source for that. (Maybe this one: http://wineeconomist.com/2009/02/10/no-wine-before-its-time/ http://wineeconomist.com/2009/02/10/no-wine-before-its-time/) So we do want the possessive here, not the contraction.
    • jodrellblank 17y ago
      That makes the phrase make a lot more sense.