Because income inequality causes all sorts of issues (haves/have nots, concentration of power, etc) Regarding the difference between pre-WWI and Post-WWII inco

Because income inequality causes all sorts of issues (haves/have nots, concentration of power, etc) Regarding the difference between pre-WWI and Post-WWII income inequality it seems pretty disingenuous to claim (if you were) that the times (then and now) are similar in economic terms, not to mention quality of life. Between the 50s and 80s or so there was still great growth (for Americans at least) but much less income inequality. Some may argue that constituted a 'sweet spot' in terms of balancing growth with income inequality. There is some interesting information at the below link regarding the time period following WWII http://www.cbpp.org/cms/?fa=view&id=3629 http://www.cbpp.org/cms/?fa=view&id=3629