4 ms·

Because it lets white Americans say 'see! other people owned slaves too!' My ancestors first set foot in America in 1930. I do happen to be white though, so I

by 300bps 13y ago

Because it lets white Americans say 'see! other people owned slaves too!' My ancestors first set foot in America in 1930. I do happen to be white though, so I'm curious as to whether you think I'm included in the people responsible for slavery. Or do you think it's only white people whose ancestors were in America more than 149 years ago? I'm just curious if you truly believe people are guilty by racial association or only by ancestral association.

pessimizer 13y ago
If your ancestors had owned every slave and had been in the US since 1650, you still wouldn't be personally responsible for slavery. What you are is a beneficiary of it, even if you came over on a boat last year. Just as if you had migrated to apartheid South Africa from Ireland in the 80s.
- 300bps 13y ago
  What you are is a beneficiary of it, even if you came over on a boat last year. How am I a beneficiary of something that was outlawed in this country 149 years ago when I have only been alive a small fraction of that time and my ancestors have only been in this country for 84 years?
  - pessimizer 13y ago
    If your ancestors had only been here for five minutes, during those five minutes you would enjoy advantages based on your race that black people would not.
    - 300bps 13y ago
      If your ancestors had only been here for five minutes, during those five minutes you would enjoy advantages based on your race that black people would not You make this extraordinary claim without providing extraordinary evidence - or in fact, any evidence. How is what you say true possible? The only way I can imagine is that your logical argument is: 1. Slave owners had an advantage over slaves 2. Descendants of slave owners had an advantage of descendants of slaves 3. An additional 5-6 generations of descendants of slave owners continued to have an advantage over 5-6 generations of descendants of slaves 4. All descendants of slave owners (regardless of how many generations removed they are) are racists that give advantages to whites 5. Therefore, any new immigrants to America instantly inherit these advantages Is that it? If not, explain how your extraordinary claim is possible.
- kingmanaz 13y ago
  The Lord said to Moses and Aaron, “These are the regulations for the Passover meal: No foreigner may eat it. Any slave you have bought may eat it after you have circumcised him" -Exodus 12:43-44 Jews held slaves and are thus the beneficiaries of slavery. Using your mindset, Jews must be maligned as an entire people for all eternity for the past sins of slavery. Isn't that mindset just another name for defamation, though? If antisemitism is a danger to the Jewish people - requiring the countervailing of an "Anti Defamation League" - why wouldn't tarring all American Anglos as the beneficiaries of slavery be a similar danger to America's founding stock? Why is defamation bad for some and good for others?

by 300bps 13y ago

pessimizer 13y ago

If your ancestors had owned every slave and had been in the US since 1650, you still wouldn't be personally responsible for slavery. What you are is a beneficiary of it, even if you came over on a boat last year. Just as if you had migrated to apartheid South Africa from Ireland in the 80s.

300bps 13y ago
What you are is a beneficiary of it, even if you came over on a boat last year. How am I a beneficiary of something that was outlawed in this country 149 years ago when I have only been alive a small fraction of that time and my ancestors have only been in this country for 84 years?
- pessimizer 13y ago
  If your ancestors had only been here for five minutes, during those five minutes you would enjoy advantages based on your race that black people would not.
  - 300bps 13y ago
    If your ancestors had only been here for five minutes, during those five minutes you would enjoy advantages based on your race that black people would not You make this extraordinary claim without providing extraordinary evidence - or in fact, any evidence. How is what you say true possible? The only way I can imagine is that your logical argument is: 1. Slave owners had an advantage over slaves 2. Descendants of slave owners had an advantage of descendants of slaves 3. An additional 5-6 generations of descendants of slave owners continued to have an advantage over 5-6 generations of descendants of slaves 4. All descendants of slave owners (regardless of how many generations removed they are) are racists that give advantages to whites 5. Therefore, any new immigrants to America instantly inherit these advantages Is that it? If not, explain how your extraordinary claim is possible.
kingmanaz 13y ago
The Lord said to Moses and Aaron, “These are the regulations for the Passover meal: No foreigner may eat it. Any slave you have bought may eat it after you have circumcised him" -Exodus 12:43-44 Jews held slaves and are thus the beneficiaries of slavery. Using your mindset, Jews must be maligned as an entire people for all eternity for the past sins of slavery. Isn't that mindset just another name for defamation, though? If antisemitism is a danger to the Jewish people - requiring the countervailing of an "Anti Defamation League" - why wouldn't tarring all American Anglos as the beneficiaries of slavery be a similar danger to America's founding stock? Why is defamation bad for some and good for others?