4 ms·
Not that it changes your overall point, but note that California no longer has a majority population along racial lines.
by sbov 13y ago
Not that it changes your overall point, but note that California no longer has a majority population along racial lines.
- dragonwriter 13y ago(Sorry, accidental downvote while attempting to select text) > Not that it changes your overall point, but note that California no longer has a majority population along racial lines. California still has a very substantial White racial majority (74.0% as of the 2010 census), it just doesn't appear to when people of Hispanic ethnicity are counted as a separate group from their race (non-Hispanic Whites were only 39.7% in the same census), as is frequently done in the US.
- Crito 13y agoIt makes sense to divide Hispanic and non-Hispanic White if we are performing this categorization for the purpose of analysing discrimination. This is because traditionally Hispanics have been discriminated against by non-Hispanic Whites. The same could be said for the Irish, or Catholics... but Protestant/Catholic discrimination seems to have simmered down in the US. Or to put it simply: Does a Hispanic in California currently experience White privilege? If no, then they should be counted separately.