3 ms·
Prevalence does not imply majority.
by bede 13y ago
Prevalence does not imply majority.
- Crito 13y agoIt probably did at one point. Oxford has "predominant" (which would imply majority) as an archaic meaning: http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_english/prevalent http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_eng...
- allannienhuis 13y agohmm, I would have thought that's exactly what it implied. Isn't the root 'prevail', which is more or less 'to win'? That would suggest a majority.