3 ms·
> But the inference rule is itself an axiom Is it? I've seen Boolean True explicitly derived from Modus Ponens. Apparently, p -> q = ~p v q which looks derivab
by Double_Cast 13y ago
> But the inference rule is itself an axiom
Is it? I've seen Boolean True explicitly derived from Modus Ponens. Apparently, p -> q = ~p v q which looks derivable from Aristotle's Third Law.
http://matt.might.net/articles/logical-literacy/ http://matt.might.net/articles/logical-literacy/
- hetman 13y agoBut Modus Ponens is the axiom here. Without it, boolean logic is just rearranging arbitrary symbols on a page. Axioms like it are necessary to link those symbols to reality in some way.