Because anarchism was defined in the late 1800's, anarcho-capitalism is a definition of Rothbard, made on an unpublished note in 1949. So why should anarcho-cap

Because anarchism was defined in the late 1800's, anarcho-capitalism is a definition of Rothbard, made on an unpublished note in 1949. So why should anarcho-capitalsts dictate what 'anarchy' means, especially when the ethymological sense is 'absence of regulating principle' and not 'absence of state'? EDIT: corrected year of unpublished Rothbard note