The article outlines how the company asymetrically broke its own terms of service. So there was no consent under (1). I don't disagree withou you that its bette

The article outlines how the company asymetrically broke its own terms of service. So there was no consent under (1). I don't disagree withou you that its better to pay and avoid giving consent in the firstplace, but even then what would be the difference? That's the deeper issue...