And perhaps more to the point, the 13th Amendment explicitly leaves slavery on the table for those convicted of a crime: "Section 1. Neither slavery nor involu

And perhaps more to the point, the 13th Amendment explicitly leaves slavery on the table for those convicted of a crime: "Section 1. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction. Section 2. Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation." Does this mean that plainly barbaric things may be justifiably used as punishments? Does this perhaps suggest the possibility that "killing a man", and "killing a man after convicting him of a crime" are morally distinct? Or does this mean that a serious revamp of how we view and run our justice system is long overdue?